Introduction to sectional anatomy pdf
Chapter objectives focus your attention on the important concepts you are expected to master by the end of the chapter. Memory learning aids, such as mnemonics, help you memorize quickly so you can concentrate more on applications of concepts. Updated material corresponds with updates to the main text.
More cross-reference images and anatomy maps have been added for additional guidance in labeling exercises. Additional exercises reinforce the relationship of specific structures to surrounding anatomy. Schematic line tomography CT as an integral part of our drawings are also generously used to il diagnostic armamentarium was based on its lustrate particularly complex anatomic re ability to display cross-sectional anatomy gions and help the reader obtain a correct with near anatomic precision.
However, perspective on these more difficult regions. This book will prove useful as a learning Michael Farkas has truly made our task guide for the uninitiated, and as a refer as radiologists easier. As noted in the ence for the more experienced. Either preface, the book carefully correlates rep way, it is an important contribution to our resentative CT slices with corresponding literature.
Elliot K. Fishman, M. Written in outline format, Mosby's Exam Review for Computed Tomography, 2nd Edition serves as both a study guide and an in-depth review. Developed by Daniel N. A companion Evolve website includes a test bank of questions that can be randomly sampled to create unlimited variations -- so you never take the same test twice.
Review questions with answers help you prepare for the ARRT exam and identify areas that need additional study. Mock exams in the book and on the Evolve website prepare you for the ARRT exam, with three question mock exams in the book and questions on Evolve that may be randomly accessed for an unlimited number of exam variations.
Study aids on Evolve allow you to bookmark questions for later study, see rationales for correct and incorrect answers, get test tips for different questions, and record and date-stamp your test scores. New to the Second Edition are expanded statistics problems and data sets, additional statistics and application examples, and computer applications for data analysis.
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It is the responsibility of practitioners, relying on their own experience and knowledge of their patients, to make diagnoses, to determine dosages and the best treatment for each individual patient, and to take all appropriate safety precautions. You are my favorite. And to Kristina, Matthew, Jennifer, John, Michael, Natalie, Angela, and Jamers, my greatest treasures, who bless me with their laughter, encourage me with their unconditional patience and love, and teach me by their selfless examples.
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All chapters in this workbook edition of Sectional Anatomy for Imaging Professionals correspond with those from the text. It offers a variety of practice items, exercises contained herein.
Define the four anatomic planes. Describe the relative position of specific structures within the body using directional and regional terminology. Identify commonly used external landmarks. Identify the location of commonly used internal landmarks. Describe the dorsal and ventral cavities of the body.
List the four abdominal quadrants. List the nine regions of the abdomen. Describe the gray scale used in CT and MR imaging. Describe multiplanar reformation, curved planar reformation, shaded surface display, maximum intensity projection, and volume rendering. Ipsilateral n. Toward the following problems. Contralateral o. Thenar p. Toward the nose Volar q.
Toward a reference 1. Superior a. On the same side point or source within the body 2. Inferior b. Near the body surface Palmar r. Toward the feet 3. Toward the head The front or palm of the hand 4. Above; at a higher level Regional Terminology 5. Medial e. Toward the front Match the region to its correct location.
Away from the 1. Abdominal a. Back of the knee midsagittal plane 2. Axillary b. Head 7. Proximal g. The sole of the foot 3. Calf c. Posterior surface 8. Distal h. On the opposite side of elbow area of 9. The fleshy part of the arm the hand at the base 4.
Cephalic d. Upper chest or of the thumb breast Pertaining to the 5. Cubital e. Abdomen palm of the hand or flexor surface of 6. Lower posterior wrist or sole of foot portion of the leg Below; at a lower 7. Mammary g. Spine level 8. Pelvic h.
Sternum Toward the back 9. Pelvis of the body Buttock Rostral m. Away from a reference point Thoracic k. Chest or source within Vertebral l.
Internal Landmarks Landmark Location 2. What do CT numbers greater than zero represent? List and describe the four anatomic planes. What does the gray scale represent in MR? State the two main body cavities and describe their divisions. Describe maximum intensity projection.
List three organs found in the right upper quadrant RUQ. Describe volume rendering. List six of the nine regions of the abdomen. List the four planes that divide the abdomen into nine regions. Define the three cranial fossae. Identify the location and unique structures of each cranial and facial bone. Identify the structures of the middle and inner ear, and describe their functions.
Identify the cranial sutures. Describe the six fontanels within the infant cranium. Describe the structures that comprise the temporomandibular joint. Identify the location of each paranasal sinus and the meatus into which it drains. Identify the structures of the osteomeatal unit. Identify the bones that form the orbit and their associated openings. Describe the structures that comprise the globe of the eye. List the muscles of the eye, and describe their functions and locations.
Fill in the blank spaces in the following sentences. Located within the basilar turn of the cochlea is the Match each cranial bone to its corresponding feature. Parietal a. Foramen ovale 2. The is located at the junction of the brainstem and spinal cord. Occipital b. Carotid canal 3. The basilar portion of the occipital bone is termed 3. Frontal c. Orbital plate the. Temporal d. Clivus 4. The zygomatic process extends from the 5.
Sphenoid e. Cribriform plate bone. Ethmoid f. Sides of the cranium 5. The bone is shaped like a butterfly and extends across the entire floor of the middle cranial fossa. Located on the lateral surface of the ramus is the Circle either True or False for each of the following statements. The largest immovable facial 7. The forms the bone is the mandible. The temporomandibular joint TMJ is formed by the condyloid process, 8. The creates the the mandible, and the mandibular anterior boundary of the temporomandibular joint, fossa of the temporal bone.
The maxillary sinuses drain into the condyle. There is typically only one 9. The ethmoid notch of the frontal bone articulates sphenoid sinus. The ethmoid bulla is part of the bone. The inner ear is normally fluid The anterior portion of the sella turcica is termed filled. The vestibule is a structure of the inner ear that controls hearing. The temporal bone forms part of the bony orbit. The lacrimal gland is located in the The greater wings of the sphenoid bone contain inferior medial portion of the orbit.
A function of the oblique muscle three paired foramina termed the , group is to rotate the eyeball. The articular disk of the TMJ is attached to the medial and lateral surface of the mandibular condyle by the. Describe the anterior fontanel.
Describe the superior orbital fissure. Describe the parts of the hard palate. Describe the mastoid antrum. Describe the anterior and posterior compartments of the globe of the eye and what each compartment 3. List the structures of the middle ear. List the structures of the inner ear, and describe their function. List the cranial bones that are joined together by the squamous suture.
On Figure 2. Which part of the mandible contains the alveolar process? Which cranial bones form the largest portion of the a. Ramus sides of the cranium? Body a. Frontal bone c. Gonion b. Parietal bone d. Mandibular notch c. Temporal bone d. Occipital bone Which of the following muscles is the strongest muscle of the jaw, arising from the zygomatic 2. Which cranial bone contains the superior and arch and inserting on the ramus and angle of the middle nasal conchae?
Ethmoid bone a. Medial pterygoid b. Sphenoid bone b. Lateral pterygoid c. Temporal bone c. Masseter d. Occipital bone d. Temporalis 3. Sphenoid bone Case study 1 b. Ethmoid bone A year-old male experienced blunt force trauma c. Temporal bone to the head. The head CT revealed a basilar skull d. Occipital bone fracture. The optic canal is separated from the superior 1.
Which cranial bones are typically fractured in a orbital fissure by which of the following? Greater wing of sphenoid bone b.
Lesser wing of sphenoid bone c. Optic strut d. Posterior clinoid process 2. Why would otorrhea or rhinorrhea be a possible 5. Which cranial bone contains the hypoglossal canal? Ethmoid bone b. Sphenoid bone c. Occipital bone 6. Which of the following foramina is a jagged slit Case study 2 that allows the internal carotid artery to enter the cranium and is located between the apex of the A 9-year-old female experiencing dizziness received petrous pyramid, body of the sphenoid bone, and a CT examination of the temporal bone that revealed basilar portion of the occipital bone?
Stylomastoid foramen b. Foramen lacerum 1. What is a cholesteatoma? Foramen ovale d. Jugular foramen 7. The region surrounding the sphenoparietal suture where the parietal, sphenoid, temporal, and frontal 2. As a cholesteatoma enlarges it may destroy the ossi- bones meet is termed the: cles and adjacent bony structures of the middle ear.
Pterion What are the names of the ossicles? Asterion c. Bregma d. Lambda 8. The anterior nasal spine is part of which facial 3. What are the possible causes of cholesteatomas? Zygoma b. Vomer c. Maxillary d. Describe the meninges. Identify the components of the ventricular system. Identify the basal cisterns. List the structures of the diencephalon. Describe the location and function of the components of the cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum. Identify the structures of the limbic system, and describe their function.
Identify the major arteries of the cerebrum, and list the structures they supply. List the arteries that comprise the circle of Willis. Identify the superficial cortical veins, deep veins, and dural sinuses of the cerebrum. Identify the function and course of the cranial nerves. Corpus callosum c.
Ventricles 1. Which of the following is not part of the circle of Willis? Choroid plexus a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Middle cerebral artery The regulation of temperature, appetite, and sleep c. Posterior cerebral artery patterns is a function of the: d. Posterior communicating artery a. Basal ganglia b. Cerebellum 2. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates between the: c.
Insula a. Dura mater and periosteum d. Hypothalamus b. Dura mater and arachnoid c. Arachnoid and pia mater The fornix connects functional areas of the brain to d. Pia mater and cerebral cortex what structure? Basal ganglia 3. The dural fold separating the cerebrum from the b. Hippocampus cerebellum is the: c. Posterior commissure a. Medullary velum d. Midbrain b. Falx cerebri c. Tentorium cerebelli Which of the following is not a section of the d.
Lamina terminalis brainstem? Thalamus 4. Which of the following is not part of the limbic system? Midbrain a. Hippocampus c. Pons b.
Mamillary bodies d. Medulla c. Olfactory bulbs d. Claustrum What structure separates the thalamus and caudate nucleus from the lentiform nucleus? The white matter tract that connects the two cerebral a. Claustrum hemispheres is the: b.
Massa intermedia a. Anterior commissure c. Internal capsule b. Posterior commissure d. External capsule c. Septum pellucidum d. Corpus callosum The roof of the midbrain is made up of the: a.
Tegmentum 6. Which of the following does not pass through the b. Tectum superior orbital fissure? Lamina terminalis a. Optic nerve d. Pineal gland b. Trochlear nerve c. Abducens nerve The cerebral peduncles are part of what structure? Trigeminal nerve a. Medulla oblongata 7. What is the function of the thalamus? Limbic system a. It acts as a relay station for sensory impulses d. Basal ganglia entering the brain b. Which of the following is a linear layer of gray ments matter lying between the insula and the lentiform c.
It is the primary area responsible for motor control nucleus and is thought to be involved with the d. It contains nerve centers for the regulation of mediation of visual attention? Caudate nucleus b. Putamen 8. Which of the following does not course through the c.
Claustrum cavernous sinus? Internal capsule a. Oculomotor nerve b. Internal carotid artery c. Abducens nerve d. The walls of the third ventricle are formed by the: 5. The is darkly a. Thalamus pigmented and is involved in the production of b. Hypothalamus dopamine in the brain. It functions in the control of c. Infundibulum muscular reflexes. Pituitary gland 6. The function of the cerebellum is to act as a center The midbrain can be divided into which two major segments?
Red nucleus and substantia nigra b. Substantia nigra and cerebral peduncles 7. The three pairs of nerve tracts that connect c. Cerebral peduncles and tectum the cerebellum to the brainstem are called the d. Cerebral peduncles and red nucleus. The first branch of the internal carotid artery is the: 8. The lobe deals with a. Anterior cerebral artery the sensation of smell, taste, and hearing. Ophthalmic artery c. Anterior communicating artery d.
Middle cerebral artery 9. The fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe. Which of the following dural sinuses begins at the crista galli, runs the entire length of the falx cerebri, and ends at the internal occipital protuberance of the The system occipital bone? Straight sinus behavior, in addition to memory, learning, and b.
Transverse sinus general emotional responses. Inferior sagittal sinus d. Superior sagittal sinus The serves to integrate the hippocampus with other functional areas of the brain.
The is the middle meningeal membrane. The are located on either side of the anterior median fissure of the The third ventricle communicates with the fourth medulla oblongata and are described as two bundles of nerve fibers.
The is an important The largest and widest bundle of white matter fibers structure of the limbic system that has a strong role within the cerebrum is the. The three portions of the basal nuclei include the , , and 3. The pontine fibers serve to connect the. The medulla oblongata contains important vital centers that regulate the control of , , and.
What are subarachnoid cisterns? List the functions of the frontal lobe. Where is cerebrospinal fluid produced, and how is it reabsorbed? Describe the blood-brain barrier BBB. List the functions of the pineal gland. Which vessels form the circle of Willis? List four major pairs of arteries that branch from the vertebral and basilar arteries. What are the branches of cranial nerve V?
On Figure 3. Skull fractures with rupture of the meningeal arteries can cause a life-threatening condition known as an epidural hematoma EDH which causes an 1.
What is an AVM? A subdural hematoma SDH is a collection of blood from ruptured vessels located in the subdural space. Where is the epidural space located? What are the symptoms of an AVM? Describe the subdural space. How frequently do AVMs rupture? Case Study 2 A patient presented to the emergency department with a severe headache.
Introduction to Sectional Anatomy 2. The Thorax 3. The Abdomen 4. The Pelvis 5. The Head 6. The Upper Extremity 8. Show more. Show less.
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